about us services portal education links
Information Sheet
Infectious Disease: Profiles of Common Shelter Diseases
bar

Table of Contents

Campylobacter spp.
Canine distemper (CDV)
Canine influenza
Canine Kennel Cough (Canine ITB)
Canine Parvovirus (CPV/parvo)
Coccidia (Isospora spp.).
Feline calicivirus (FCV)
Feline herpesvirus (FHV)
Feline Immunodeficiency virus (FIV)
Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
Feline Leukemia (FeLV)
Giardiasis
Hookworms
Panleukopenia (feline distemper)
Ringworm (dermatophytosis)
Roundworms, (Ascaridiasis)
Sarcoptic manage (Scabies)
Tritrichomoniasis
Whipworms (Trichuis vulpis)

This section contains one page information sheets with BASIC information about these commonly seen pathogens including, the clinical significance of each agent, the diagnostic options available to shelters, as well as tips on preventing these commonly seen pathogens in the shelter environment.




Campylobacter spp.

Agent:

Campylobacter spp. especially jejuni, sometimes coli. Gram negative, microareophilic, curved rod. Some strain variation in pathogenicity. Non-pathogenic species also exist.

Susceptible domestic species

Cats, dogs, ferrets, rabbits, livestock, poultry, many others

Zoonotic?

Yes; most human cases acquired from undercooked meant but transmission from pets may also occur.

Prevalence

Estimates from 1-6% of pet and shelter cats in several recent surveys in the U.S. Up to 40-50% in some studies. Many studies have shown no association with diarrhea, but other sources have reported higher frequency in diarrheic animals.

Risk factors

Age (< 6 months), stress including surgery,

Clinical signs and significance

Usually asymptomatic. Disease more frequently documented in dogs than cats: watery mucoid diarrhea, +/- blood. Systemic signs may be seen (fever, leukocytosis, inappetance, vomiting).  Disease usually lasts 3-7 days, occasionally may be chronic or intermittent. Uncommon sole cause of disease in cats, especially > 6 months old; look for concurrent infections or other problems.

Diagnostic aids:

Stained smear: Insert moistened cotton swab 3-4 cm into rectum. Roll gently on slide. Air dry. Stain with diffquick. Neutrophils suggest bacterial infection (Salmonella or Campy). Gull forms suggest Campylobacter spp.

Culture: Notify lab if campylobacter is suspected. Microareophilic culture required. Lab may suggest special transport media to enhance culture viability. Transport fresh promptly to lab to maximize results. Campylobacter is somewhat fragile; false negative results can occur if sample handling is compromised.

Test comments

Non-pathogenic Campylobacter species may be seen on slide; lab may report results as culture negative in that case. Assorted spirochetes can look like gull forms.

Excreted in :

Feces

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral, food and water borne, fomites

Disinfection

Routine disinfection is adequate

Incubation

~ 3-5 days

Post-recovery shedding

Indefinite in untreated

Carrier state?

Yes

Specific treatment

Macrolides (erythromycin or azithromycin) usually drug of choice, tx for 3 weeks recommended. Resistance is common to penicillins and trimethoprim. Culture and sensitivity may be required in persistent infections.

 



 

Canine distemper (CDV)

Disease name:

Canine distemper

Agent:

Morbillivirus (family Paramyxoviridae; enveloped RNA)

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, ferrets

Zoonotic?

No (suspected links to multiple sclerosis have not been supported by research)

Diagnostic tests:

IFA for viral antigen or inclusion bodies in cells from conjunctival scrape, urine sediment, buffy coat

PCR of nasal or ocular discharge

Serum IgM or rising serum IgG

CSF antibody detection

Test sensitivity

Fair to poor in acute disease, lousy in subacute or chronic disease

Fair during acute respiratory phase of disease

Good

Good in acute encephalitic disease, otherwise poor

Test specificity

Very good

Good – false positive possible 1-2 weeks after vaccine

Good except false positive may occur within 3 weeks of vaccination

Good – antibody ratio can rule out blood contamination from traumatic collection

Test comments

Lymphopenia and thrombocytopenia are common acutely. There is no really satisfactory test for diagnosing distemper ante-mortem.

Vaccine available?

Yes

Vaccine efficacy

Good. Vaccine provides rapid protection against infection; puppies exposed 4 hours after vaccination were protected in one study. Recombinant vaccine provides better protection in the face of maternal antibodies (puppies less than 16 weeks).

Excreted in :

All body excretions (feces, urine, etc), but most abundant in respiratory secretions

Mode of transmission:

Highly contagious. Aerosol, droplet, direct contact spread most common. Fomite transmission over short time/distance.

Disinfection

Routine disinfection is adequate. Susceptible to heat, drying and most common disinfectants

Incubation

Fever spike 3-6 days post-infection, clinical signs 1-4 weeks post-infection (longer incubation more common), CNS signs may appear up to 3 months later with or without preceding signs

Post-recovery shedding

Up to 90 days, but usually < 60 days

Carrier state?

No, but mild and inapparent infection common and important in propagation. Old dog encephalitis may represent recrudescence of latent disease, but dogs are not infectious in the interim.



 

Canine influenza

Disease name:

Canine influenza

Agent:

Enveloped RNA virus

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, horses

 

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic tests:

Serology

E.g. Cornell Animal Health Diagnostic Center http://www.diaglab.vet.cornell.edu/

Obtain samples 1 week after onset of signs, second sample 2-3 weeks later. 4X rise in titer indicates recent infection. Single positive serum sample indicates past exposure at unknown time.
Flu-A antigen ELISA

Becton-Diskinson
http://www.bd.com/ds/productCenter/DT-DirectigenInfluenza.asp

Most sensitive in first 2-3 days of  clinical signs. False negatives uncommon. Test kits come on batches of 20, cost comes out to     ~ $25/ test.
PCR

E.g. Idexx (http://www.idexx.com/animalhealth/laboratory/)
Most sensitive before onset of signs in recently exposed dogs

False negatives common after onset of signs

Excreted in :

Primarily oropharyngeal secretions (mucous, saliva)

Mode of transmission:

Direct, fomite and AEROSOL

Ideally infected dogs should be kept in an area with separate ventilation. At minimum, infected dogs should be separated from other dogs by at least 30 feet.

Disinfection

Persists < 1 week in the environment. Inactivated by most commonly used disinfectants such as alcohol, bleach, quaternary ammonium compounds, and potassium peroxymonosulfate (e.g. Trifectant ®).

Incubation

Onset of signs 2-4 days post infection. Onset of shedding 2-5 days post infection. Note that maximum shedding may occur prior to development of clinical signs.

Post-recovery shedding

Shedding resolves within 7 days post  infection.

Carrier state?

No

 



 

Canine Kennel Cough (Canine ITB)

Disease name:

Kennel Cough (canine URI)

Agent:

Bordetella bronchiseptica, canine parinfluenza virus (CpiV, enveloped RNA paramyxovirus), canine adenovirus 2 (CAV-2, unenveloped  DNA Virus), others

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, cats

 

Less common for cats to suffer clinical disease, but they may be carriers. In some cases Bordetella infection may contribute to URI or pneumonia in young kittens.

Zoonotic?

Yes – rare – most common in immunocompromised people or those with preexisting respiratory disease

Diagnostic tests:

Culture or PCR of ocular, nasal or oropharyngeal swab for Bordetella. PCR for adenovirus, parainfluenza virus available from some labs.

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Good – improved by careful sample handling

Test specificity (false positives)

Good – however, Bordetella may be isolated from healthy dogs. Specificity of culture is improved by culturing transtracheal or endotracheal wash fluid rather than oral or nasal swabs.

Test comments

Diagnosis almost always made based on clinical signs, r/o of canine distemper in severe cases

Vaccine available?

Yes – for Bordetella, CpiV, and CAV-2

Vaccine efficacy

Moderate: does not completely prevent infection but reduces severity of signs. MLV IN vaccine may cause mild signs including green nasal discharge that can trigger distemper worries.

Excreted in :

Primarily ocular, nasal and oral secretions

Mode of transmission:

Highly contagious. Transmitted by aerosolized microdroplets, fomites over moderate time/distance, direct contact.

Disinfection

Routine disinfection adequate for all but CAV-2, which requires bleach 1:32 or potassium peroxymonosulfate to fully inactivate à

CAV-2 probably a minor player in most cases of kennel cough

Incubation

3-10 days

Post-recovery shedding

Bordetella may be shed up to 3 months. Viral agents shed < 2 weeks à

Infectious risk is greatly reduced when dogs no longer have discharge or coughing.

Carrier state?

No. Cats may have subclinical infections and transmit disease to dogs.



 

Canine Parvovirus (CPV/parvo)

Disease name:

Parvo (canine parvoviral enteritis)

Agent:

Canine parvovirus (unenveloped DNA virus)

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, cats (feline infection with CPV strains uncommonly reported in U.S., but is possible [1])

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic aids:

ELISA test for fecal antigen

CBC: leukopenia-lymphopenia

In-house necropsy: enteritis, thickening of distal duodenum and jejunum

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Good in first 5-7 days of disease (estimates range from 69% - 95.8%[2-5])

Moderate – more common in severe disease

Good during acute disease

Test specificity (false positives)

Very good (estimates range from 93%-100% - caution in recent vaccinates [2-5])

Moderate – may also be seen with Canine Distemper, others

Moderate – mild cases indistinguishable from enteritis of other causes

Test comments

False positive possible (though uncommon) 5-12 days after MLV vaccine. Usually weak if present.

Histopathology performed by commercial lab is gold standard

Vaccine available?

Yes; modified live subcutanous

Vaccine efficacy

Excellent in dogs >16 weeks (maternal antibody interference possible  in dogs < 12-16 weeks)

Excreted in :

Feces –shedding often precedes clinical signs by a couple of days L

Mode of transmission:

Readily spread due to extreme environmental resistance  – direct contact, fomites, mechanically spread by rodents and insects, can be aerosolized by high pressure sprayers

Disinfection

THOROUGH cleaning followed by bleach 1:32 or potassium peroxymonosulfate. No way to fully decontaminate unbleachable materials/organic matter such as grass or dirt yards. May persist for months or years, especially in dark, cool environments.

Incubation

3 -14 days (usually 4 -7 days, occasionally up to 21 days)

Post-recovery shedding

Usually <2 weeks

Carrier state?

No, but mild or inapparent infection is common, especially in adults

1.Ikeda, Y., et al., Feline host range of canine parvovirus: Recent emergence of new antigenic types in cats. Emerging Infectious Diseases, 2002. 8(4): p. 341-6.

2.Hoskins, J.D., T. Mirza, and H.W. Taylor, Evaluation of a fecal antigen test for the diagnosis of canine parvovirus. J Am Coll Vet Intern Med, 1996. 10: p. 159.

3.Esfandiari, J. and B. Klingeborn, A comparative study of a new rapid and one-step test for the detection of parvovirus in feces from dogs, cats and mink. J Vet Med B Infect Dis Vet Public Health, 2000. 47(2): p. 145-53.

4.Drane, D.P., R.C. Hamilton, and J.C. Cox, Evaluation of a novel diagnostic test for canine parvovirus. Vet Microbiol, 1994. 41(3): p. 293-302.

5.Veijalainen, P.M., et al., Latex agglutination test for detecting feline panleukopenia virus, canine parvovirus, and parvoviruses of fur animals. J Clin Microbiol, 1986. 23(3): p. 556-9.

 



 

Coccidia (Isospora spp.).

Agent:

Coccidia (Isospora spp)  Some strain variation in pathogenicity

Susceptible domestic species

Isospora species are species-specific. Feline isospora do not infect dogs and vice versa.

Zoonotic?

No

Prevalence

Estimates from < 5% to > 60% depending on population sampled. No significant association with diarrhea reported.

Risk factors

Age (kittens and puppies), co-infections, stress including transportation, change in ownership, weaning

Clinical signs and significance

Most often subclinical. Difficult to recreate disease in SPF kittens > 4 weeks of age.  May cause diarrhea +/- weight loss, dehydration, mucous or blood. Death occurs rarely.

Diagnostic aids:

Fecal floatation.

Test comments

Consider signs, history, signalment, and number of oocysts when assessing significance of oocysts in feces. Clinical signs may precede shedding, leading to false negative floatation results acutely. Coprophagy may lead to presence of oocysts from other species.

Excreted in :

Feces

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral, very effectively spread by fomites

Disinfection

Resistant to many disinfectants. High heat cleaning/scalding water or 10% ammonia solution are reportedly effective. Frequent litter box changes are helpful, as it takes 8-36 hours to become infectious in feces.

Incubation

Prepatent period 3-11 days

Post-recovery shedding

1-9 weeks

Carrier state?

Yes

Specific treatment

Sulfadimethoxine, trimethoprim-sulfa, amprolium.
New treatments are available. For more information visit our vet only section.

 



 

Feline calicivirus (FCV)

Disease name:

Feline URI: calicivirus

Agent:

Feline calicivirus (unenvelopedRNA virus)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

No

Clinical signs and significance

Commonly isolated from clinically normal cats. Causes URI: Fever, oral or nasal ulceration (particularly suggestive of calici), sneezing, conjunctivitis (less common than with herpes). Acute or chronic gingivitis, stomatitis, faucitis. Some strains cause limping, Polyarthritis. Pneumonia especially in young kittens. Virulent systemic disease associated with systemic vascular compromise, edema, high fever, death especially in adult cats.

Diagnostic tests:

Viral culture on ocular, nasal or oropharyngeal swabs or serum.

PCR on ocular, nasal or oropharyngeal swabs

Test sensitivity

(false negatives)

Good during acute disease if sample handled correctly. Sensitivity drops off quickly over course of illness.

Similar to viral culture. RNA virus is fragile, easier than herpes to destroy through rough sample handling.

Test specificity (false positives)

Good (but see comments). Vaccination can cause positive results, including long term positive results.

Good (depending on quality control at lab), same considerations as for culture.

Test comments

Many cats are chronic carriers, positive results are common in apparently healthy cats. Positive results from serum (as opposed to oronasal or conjunctival swabs) are more suggestive of infection causing signs of disease.

Vaccine available?

Yes: modified live intranasal, and modified live or killed parenteral.

Vaccine efficacy

Moderate for protection against severe disease, does not prevent infection, may cause mild, contagious disease. Vaccine resistant strains exist. Additional benefit may be gained by giving both IN and parenteral vaccine in shelter.

Excreted in :

All body excretions, especially oronasal secretions.

Mode of transmission:

Highly contagious, moderately environmentally persistent. Spread by direct contact, fomite spread over significant time/distance, droplet spread over distances < five feet

Disinfection

Not reliably killed by quaternary ammonium or many other disinfects, including many alcohol hand sanitizers. Inactivated by bleach or potassium peroxymonosulfate (Trifectant/Virkon) applied to clean surface free of organic matter. Can persist in environment up to 4 weeks if not killed by disinfection.

Incubation

Usually 1-5 days

Post-recovery shedding

Extended. Most shed > 30 days after recovery, and some cats shed life long.

Specific treatment

None proven. Feline interferon (not currently available in the  U.S.), bovine lactoferrin, antisense RNA and others have been proposed.

Carrier state?

Yes – chronic infection is common and shedding tends to be constant rather than stress-associated.  Likelihood of transmission from asymptomatic carriers is significantly less than from acutely infected cats, but is possible and may serve to maintain a severe strain of FCV in a population

 



 

Feline herpesvirus (FHV - Rhinotraccheitis)

Disease name:

Feline URI: herpes, aka feline viral rhinotracheitis

Agent:

Herpesvirus (enveloped DNA virus)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

No

Clinical signs and significance

May be isolated from asymptomatic cats, especially in multiple cat environments. Causes URI: Sneezing, ocular and nasal discharge, conjunctivitis, keratitis, blepharospasm, fever, anorexia, rarely oral ulceration.  Ocular ulceration is particularly suggestive of herpes. Wide range of ocular signs, including chronic conjunctivitis, anterior uveitis, symblepharon, eosinophilic keratitis, corneal sequestrum. Can cause chronic rhinitis/sinusitis, implicated with calicivirus in chronic lymphoplasmacytic gingivostomatitis.

Diagnostic tests:

Viral culture on ocular, nasal or oropharyngeal swabs

PCR on ocular, nasal or oropharyngeal swabs

Test sensitivity

(false negatives)

Good during acute disease if sample handled correctly. Sample will be over-run by calici if concurrently infected.

Good during acute disease. Various PCR techniques exist, some more sensitive than others.

Test specificity (false positives)

Good.  Intranasal vaccine can cause positive results soon after vaccination.

Good (depending on quality control at lab)

Test comments

Many cats are chronic carriers; positive test only indicates infection, not that infection is causing clinical signs. Positive results may also be caused by vaccine induced acute or chronic infection.

Vaccine available?

Yes: modified live intranasal, and modified live or killed parenteral.

Vaccine efficacy

Moderate for protection against severe disease, does not prevent infection, may cause mild, contagious disease. Additional benefit may be gained by giving both IN and parenteral vaccine in shelter.

Excreted in :

Primarily in nasal, ocular and oral secretions

Mode of transmission:

Direct contact, fomite spread over short time/distance, droplet spread over distances < five feet

Disinfection

Routine disinfection adequate. Survives no more than 18 hours in the environment (long enough to be transported on unwashed hands or scrub tops, however!)

Incubation

Usually 2-6 days; recrudescent disease usually observed within ~ 7 days after a stressful event.

Post-recovery shedding

2-3 weeks; see carrier state

Carrier state?

Yes indeed, > 80% of infected cats remain chronic carriers and intermittently shed with stress

Specific treatment

Lysine 500 mgs per adult cat PO BID may help reduce frequency and severity of recurrence. Give as powder, sprinkle on food. Probably more effective as long term preventive than acute treatment.

Topical (for ocular herpes): trifluridine, idoxuridine, or vidarabine (in order from most to least effective AND most to least irritating). At least 5 times a day for 3 weeks.

 



 

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV, sometimes called Feline AIDS)

Disease name:

FIV (sometimes called feline AIDS)

Agent:

Feline Immunodeficiency virus (enveloped RNA retrovirus)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

NO

Diagnostic tests:

ELISA serum test for antibody

Western blot serum test for antibody

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Good (must be performed 60 days after last known exposure to allow time for seroconversion)

Moderate

Test specificity (false positives)

Good, but false positive common in low prevalence populations – if possible, positive test should be confirmed by another test. False positives due to maternal antibodies in kittens < 6 months old or prior vaccination

Good. Thought to be more specific than ELISA, but recent study by Julie Levy suggests ELISA is more specific.

Test comments

There is no currently available test which distinguishes natural infection from vaccination for FIV. More information on retrovirus testing can be found at The American Association of Feline Practitioners Guidelines site: Click on 2001 Report of feline retrovirus testing and management to download the PDF

Vaccine available?

Yes

Vaccine efficacy

~ 80% in manufacturer study; may be less effective in field conditions.

More information on vaccine is available at http://www.aafponline.org/fiv_info_brief.htm

Excreted in :

Primarily saliva, genital fluids

Mode of transmission:

Not highly contagious. Transmitted primarily through biting and mating. 

Disinfection

Routine disinfection adequate.

Incubation

Antiviral antibodies first detected 2-4 weeks post infection; clinical signs usually develop within 3-6 years post-infection

Post-recovery shedding

N/A

Carrier state?

Cats may be viremic and appear healthy for extended periods, but are infectious to other cats

 



 

Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

Disease name:

Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)

Agent:

Feline Enteric Corona Virus (FECV). Enveloped RNA virus. Mutates in some cats to cause FIP

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic tests:

Biopsy and immunohistochemistry

Serology/PCR

Clinical signs/lab values

Test comments

Sensitivity (frequency of false negatives) is variable depending on form of disease and specimen submitted. False positives are uncommon.

Although serology and PCR can detect a history of exposure to FECV, they do not distinguish between FECV infection/exposure or FIP. The majority of shelter cats will test positive but will not develop FIP. Titers >16,000 are suggestive of FIP but not found in the majority of cats with FIP. Titers negative at 1:25 are a reliable indicator that FIP is not present, but not all labs report titers down to 1:25, and “negative” titers from labs that use a higher cut off can be seen in cats with FIP.

FIP is most commonly diagnosed antemortem based on clinical signs and lab values. The combination of hyperglobulinemia, neutrophilia, lymphopenia in a cat with typical clinical signs is reasonably predictive. Characteristic abdominal effusion is very suggestive. 

Vaccine available?

Yes;  MLV intranasal. Requires two doses at greater than 16 weeks of age.

Vaccine efficacy

Not effective, especially in shelter setting where virtually all cats will be exposed prior to vaccination being protective. Questions remain about safety. Not recommended.

Excreted in :

FECV excreted primarily in feces. FIP rarely shed as such, and even when it is, it is rarely infectious.

Mode of transmission:

FECV is highly contagious, transmitted by contact with feces, easily transmitted by fomites. FIP is rarely transmitted as such: cats in stable households with  FIP positive cat are at little increased risk for contracting disease compared with other cats in multiple cat (> 5 cats) environments1.  Kittens introduced to FIP endemic shelters/catteries were at greatly increased risk for contracting FIP2,3, even if adult cats were not showing signs of disease. Littermates of FIP positive cat are at increased risk (25-40%) due to shared genetic predisposition as well as common exposure history. Mothers of FIP kittens are not at significantly higher risk for disease but may be at higher risk for transmission of mutable strain of FeCV.

Disinfection

Routine disinfection adequate to inactivate virus. Reduction of crowding, good sanitation and frequent cleaning of litter boxes, use of low dust/tracking litter is important to reduce overall load of FECV in environment.

Incubation

Clinical signs due to FECV infection rarely appreciated. FIP most commonly develops within 6-18 months post-infection.

Post-recovery shedding

Cats with FECV may shed for months, although recognizable clinical signs due to infection are rare. Shed usually stops within a year if the cat is removed from a multiple cat environment, thus preventing reinfection.

Carrier state?

40-60% of shelter cats will be shedding FECV at any given time.

 



 

Feline Leukemia (FeLV)

Disease name:

Feline Leukemia (FeLV)

Agent:

Feline leukemia virus (enveloped RNA retrovirus)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic tests:

ELISA test antigen in blood or serum

IFA test for antigen in blood or serum

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Very good (much worse on saliva or tears)

Good, but not as sensitive as ELISA

Test specificity (false positives)

Good (also good on saliva and tears); however, cats may clear infection. Retesting recommended (see below).

Good

Test comments

Further testing recommendations can be found at There is no currently available test which distinguishes natural infection from vaccination for FIV. More information on retrovirus testing can be found at The American Association of Feline Practitioners Guidelines site: Click on 2001 Report of feline retrovirus testing and management to download the PDF

When disease is uncommon, as is often the case in healthy-appearing cats, false positives are relatively more frequent and confirmation is important.

Vaccine available?

Yes

Vaccine efficacy

Moderate (~ 70% efficacy)

Excreted in :

Primarily saliva, although also found in milk, blood and urine

Mode of transmission:

Close contact or fomites contaminated with saliva. Does not survive long in environment.  

Disinfection

Routine disinfection is adequate.

Incubation

Up to four weeks from exposure to viremia detectable by antigen test; development of clinical signs may not occur for months after infection (average survival 2 years). 

Post-recovery shedding

No, but see comment below

Carrier state?

Cats may be viremic and appear healthy for extended periods, but are infectious to other cats

Giardiasis

Disease name:

Giardiasis

Agent:

Giardia duodenalis (syn. G. intestinalis, G. lamblia)

Infective forms:

Exists as intestinal trophozoite form and as an infective cyst.

Susceptible domestic species:

Cats, dogs, and most domestic species

Zoonotic?:

No

Diagnostic tests:

Direct smear
Zinc flotation with centrifugation
Flotation without centrifugation
Idexx ELISA SNAP test

Test sensitivity (likelihood test will correctly ID truly infected animals)

~ 50% on diarrheic feces
~75% on 3 samples over 5 days
Poor (probably <10%)
85-90%

Test specificity (likelihood test will correctly ID those NOT infected)

Must distinguish from T. foetus in cats
Good, if able to distinguish from coccidia, yeast etc.
95-99%

Test comments:

Must be fresh sample
Cyst shedding is intermittent – must sample repeatedly
Test is essentially not recommended for giardia
Can test + for up to 2 weeks following successful treatment

Other tests:

There are several other tests available from laboratories. The ProspectT microplate ELISA and FA tests are good; please call your lab for details on the tests and on their specificities/sensitivities. (The ProspectT RAPID assay is less sensitive).

Prevalence in shelters:

Cats: 10-30% (up to 100% in some catteries)
Dogs: 20-40% (up to 100% in some kennels)

Vaccine available?:

Yes, however it is not recommended as it has not been proven to be effective.

Excreted in:

feces

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral either directly or indirectly via e.g. fecal contaminated water or food.

Disinfection:

Cysts can exist for months in a moist/cool environment. Quaternary ammonium-containing disinfectants are effective at room temperature. Drying of kennels also helps in between disinfection.

Incubation:

Average prepatent period is 8 days in dogs, 10 days in cats. Onset of disease (if it occurs) may precede cyst shedding by 1-2 days.

Post-recovery shedding:

Shedding may still occur even after disease is treated. It is advisable to retest animal at the end of treatment and then again several weeks later.

Carrier state?:

YES. Most infections in otherwise healthy adult animals are asymptomatic. Self cure is possible as is chronic shedding.

Treatment and prevention of outbreaks:

Fenbendazole (panacur)
Febental/pyrantel/praziquantel (Drontal Plus)
Metronidazole(less effective and resistance is possible).
For more information visit our vet only section.

Reinfection is common so decontamination of the environment in shelters is paramount. Bathing can also help decrease cyst load found on fur.



Hookworms

Disease name:

Hookworms

Agent:

Ancyclostoma caninum, A. braziliense, A. tubaeforme, Uncinaria stenocephala, A. caninum (dogs & cats), A. braziliense (dogs), A. tubaeforme (cats), Uncinaria stenocephala (dogs &
cats). Ancyclostoma caninum is the most likely to cause disease.

Susceptible domestic species:

Dogs & (less commonly) cats.

Zoonotic?:

Yes, can cause cutaneous larval migrans (migration through the skin, also called “creeping eruption”) in humans. More information

Diagnostic tests:

Fecal float

Test sensitivity (false negatives):

Moderate. False negatives are not uncommon,. Because of the long prepatent period, heavily-infected animals may show clinical signs before eggs are shed in the feces. In low-level infections, eggs may be shed intermittently.

Test specificity (false positives):

False positives uncommon

Vaccine available?:

No

Excreted in:

feces, milk (dogs)

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral, transmammary (during nursing – dogs only), percutaneous (skin penetration by larvae), ingestion of animals (insects, rodents) that have ingested hookworm eggs

Disinfection:

Eggs are less resistant than those of roundworms. Most hookworm eggs are destroyed by freezing, drying, and temperatures over 98oF.

Sodium borate (0.5kg/m2) will destroy hookworm eggs when raked into gravel or soil. Contamination of the environment can be reduced by prophylactic treatment of susceptible animals and by removing
feces daily (since eggs can become infective in just 2 days).

Incubation:

10-14 days, but can vary with age, stress, malnutrition, and other disease. Puppies frequently become ill at 1-3 weeks of age.

Post-recovery shedding:

Shedding may still occur even after disease is treated. It is advisable to retest animal at the end of treatment and then again several weeks later.

Carrier state?:

Yes, asymptomatic animals may shed hookworm eggs for prolonged periods

Pre-patent period:

Time between infection and shedding of eggs = 2-4 weeks (shorter if eggs are ingested, longer if infectionacquired via larval penetration of skin). Eggs become infective 2-8 days after they are shed

Treatment and prevention of outbreaks:

All puppies should be treated for hookworms every 2 weeks starting at 1-2 weeks of age until they are 12 weeks old. Pregnant and nursing bitches should also be treated to minimize transmission to their off spring. Prophylactic treatment of all shelter dogs & cats is suggested. Severely malnourished animals may require re-treatment. Eff ective treatments include the following drugs: Pyrantel pamoate (Strongid®, Nemex®, pyrantel is also an ingredient in the following products: Drontal®, Drontal Plus®, HeartGard Plus®, & Iverhart Plus®), Fenbendazole (Panacur®), Febantel (an ingredient in Drontal Plus®), and Milbemycin (SafeHeart®, Interceptor®, an ingredient in Sentinel®).
Treatment for hookworm dermatitis: topical thiabendazole (Tresaderm®)




 

Panleukopenia (feline distemper)

Disease name:

Panleukopenia (feline distemper)

Agent:

Parvovirus closely related to canine parvo (unenveloped DNA virus)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic aids:

ELISA test for fecal antigen (some tests for canine parvo also detect panleukopenia: IDEXX CITE, others)

CBC: leukopenia, especially neutropenia

In-house necropsy: segmental enteritis

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Good, but not as good as for parvo. False negatives are possible.

Good at height of infection (day 4-6). Less likely to see CBC changes in mildly affected animals.

Moderate – don’t always see classical segmental pattern, or enteritis may not be grossly appreciated at all.

Test specificity (false positives)

Very good except for rare weak positive post-vaccination (see below).

Moderate – can also be caused by Salmonellosis, FeLV, others

Good – true segmental enteritis is uncommon with other conditions

Test comments

False positive possible 5-12 days after MLV vaccine (may be as early as 3 days with high antigen mass vaccine). Usually weak if present.

 

Histopathology performed by commercial lab is gold standard

Vaccine available?

Yes: subcutaneous or intranasal. Subcutaneous available as killed or modified live, with respiratory viruses or as single antigen

Vaccine efficacy

Efficacy of subcutaneous modified live is excellent. Vaccine is most beneficial if given immediately upon intake. Maternal antibody interference is possible  in kittens less than 12-16 weeks. Intranasal vaccine probably less effective in shelter. Onset of protection from killed virus vaccine too slow for typical shelter use (requires booster). Modified live vaccine should not be used in kittens < 4 weeks or pregnant queens expected to carry litter to term.

Excreted in :

All body secretions during acute disease, but most often feces –shedding often precedes clinical signs by a couple of days L

Mode of transmission:

HIGHLY contagious – direct contact, fomite spread, mechanically spread by rodents and insects, can be aerosolized by high pressure sprayers

Disinfection

THOROUGH cleaning followed by bleach 1:32 or potassium peroxymonosulfate (Virkon or Trifectant). No way to fully decontaminate unbleachable materials/organic matter such as grass or dirt yards.

Incubation

3 -14 days (usually 5-7 days)

Post-recovery shedding

Maximum 6 weeks

Carrier state?

No, but mild or inapparent infection is common, especially in adults. Cats may uncommonly be carriers of canine parvovirus.

 



 

Ringworm (dermatophytosis)

Disease name:

Ringworm (dermatophytosis)

Agent:

Microsporum canis (other species can infect dogs and cats, but M. canis by far most common in shelters.)

Susceptible domestic species

Cats, dogs, ferrets, others. Persian cats and yorkies extra susceptible.

Zoonotic?

Yes!

Diagnostic tests:

Woods lamp (must be real Woods lamp, electric preferred to battery operated)

Fungal culture

KOH direct smear

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Poor (~50% false negatives)

Good (see comments) but takes up to two weeks

Poor (40-70% false negatives)

Test specificity (false positives)

Good (a few other fungal species and some drugs and other substances can fluoresce if spilled on the fur)

Good (see comments) but must wait full two weeks before confirming negative

Good when interpreted by experienced clinician

Test comments

Maximum accuracy when performed correctly (allow lamp to warm up 3-5 minutes, perform in completely dark room, hold over suspect lesion 3-5 minutes)

Fungal culture is quite accurate when performed correctly. Use culture media at room temperature, incubate at 75-80 degrees.  Microscopic identification is required for all cultures, regardless of presence or absence  of color change on DTM. Some species, notably Trichophyton, can be more difficult to culture.

Vaccine available?

Vaccine no longer available; previously available vaccine was not effective to prevent infection.

Vaccine efficacy

N/A

Mode of transmission:

Present on hair, very readily shed in environment, extremely contagious, may be carried on hair and dust long distances on fomites and through heating and ventilation ducts

Disinfection

Highly resistant, can persist for over a year. Repeated applications of bleach at high concentration (1:10) and prolonged contact most practical method of inactivation, commercial steam cleaning for carpets. Some environments can’t be decontaminated.

Incubation

1-3 weeks

Post-recovery shedding

Cats can remain infectious for several weeks following clinical recovery.

Carrier state?

True carrier state uncommon, but cats can act as mechanical carriers without developing clinical signs themselves.

 

 

 



Roundworms, (Ascaridiasis)

Disease name:

Roundworms, Ascaridiasis

Agent:

Toxacara spp., Toxascaris leonina

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs and cats. There are many other species of roundworms that infect other species, but the species  listed above are limited to dogs & cats.  Baylisascaris is a roundworm of raccoons which occasionally infects dogs, and has serious zoonotic potential.

Zoonotic?

Yes, Can cause visceral and ocular larval migrans in humans (migration through the internal organs or eyes, which may lead to organ damage and blindness).  Baylisascaris can cause visceral, ocular, or fatal neural larval migrans (migration in the brain) in humans. 

Diagnostic tests:

Fecal float

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

False negatives common, especially in puppies and kittens. Puppies and kittens should be treated routinely, regardless of fecal exam results.

Test specificity (false positives)

False positives uncommon

Test comments

Puppies and kittens should be treated routinely, regardless of fecal exam results

Vaccine available?

No

Vaccine efficacy

N/A

Excreted in :

Feces, milk. Adult dogs are much less likely to shed eggs than puppies.  Adult dogs are also less likely than adult cats to shed roundworm eggs.

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral, transplacental (from mother during pregnancy) in puppies, transmammary (via nursing) in kittens & puppies, ingestion of animals (e.g. rodents) that have ingested roundworm eggs

Disinfection

Eggs are extremely resistant to disinfection.  They can persist in soil for years.  Contamination of the environment can be reduced by prophylactic treatment of susceptible animals and by removing feces at least weekly (since it takes eggs 1 week to become infective).  Bleach (3 cups per gallon) followed by high-pressure washing will make eggs easier to remove from the environment, although it will not kill them.  Be sure to remove all organic matter first, as bleach is inactivated by this.

Incubation

Most puppies are infected at birth, kittens become infected within 1-3 weeks of birth.

Carrier state?

Yes.  Asymptomatic animals can shed eggs for prolonged periods, but this is more common in young cats and dogs, much less common in adult dogs.

Treatment:

Effective treatments include the following drugs:  Pyrantel pamoate (Strongid®, Nemex®, pyrantel is also an ingredient in the following products:  Drontal®, Drontal Plus®, HeartGard Plus®, & Iverhart Plus®), Piperazine (Pipa-tabs®. Seargent’s Worm-Away®), Fenbendazole (Panacur®), High-dose ivermectin, Milbemycin (SafeHeart®, Interceptor®, an ingredient in Sentinel®), Selamectin (Revolution®)

All puppies & kittens should be treated for roundworms every 2-3 weeks starting at 2-3 weeks of age until they are 12-16 weeks old.  Pregnant and nursing mothers should also be treated to minimize transmission to their offspring.  Prophylactic treatment of all shelter dogs & cats is suggested.



 

Sarcoptic Manage (Scabies)

Disease name:

Sarcoptic mange (aka scabies)

Agent:

Sarcoptes scabiei var. canis (burrowing mite)

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, may transiently infect cats

Zoonotic?

Yes

Diagnostic tests:

Skin scrape

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Poor – about 50% false negatives.

Mites less likely to be detected with chronic disease, severe pruritus, or history of treatment. Sensitivity improved by taking multiple scrapings.

Test specificity (false positives)

Excellent with careful species identification

Test comments

Diagnosis may be made on clinical signs of intensely pruritic skin disease with characteristic distribution and response to treatment, even if negative skin scrapings are obtained.

Vaccine available?

No

Vaccine efficacy

N/A

Excreted in :

In fur and immediate environment.

Mode of transmission:

Direct contact, fomite transmission. Mites live off host up to 6 days at room temperature, longer (up to 21 days) in moist cool environment.

Disinfection

Environments that are not’t easily mechanically cleaned and disinfected (home-like environments) should be treated with an environmental pesticide.

Incubation

Dogs may show signs within a few days of infection

Post recovery shedding

Live mites may remain after resolution of pruritus – continue treatment for 2 weeks past remission, at least 4-6 weeks

Carrier state?

Yes – all dogs in prolonged direct contact (house or kennel mates) with affected dog should be treated, as asymptomatic carriers exist.



Tritrichomoniasis

Disease name:

Tritrichomoniasis

Agent:

An enteric protozoal infection due to tritrichomonads: T. foetus and Pentatrichomonas hominis

Susceptible domestic species:

T. foetus causes disease in cats and kittens (it is also a venereal pathogen of cattle – it is unknown whether there can be cross-infection).

Zoonotic? Unknown, only one human infection with T. foetus has been recorded in a severely immunocompromised person. However, since zoonosis may be possible basic good hygiene principles should be used when handling infected cats.

Prevalence:

Unknown; one survey found 31% at an international cat show whereas a survey of feral cats did not find T. foetus. Crowding appears to be the only risk factor.

Diagnostic tests:

Direct smear

Fecal protozoal culture (In Pouch® TF test)

PCR

Test sensitivity (likelihood test will correctly ID truly infected animals)

14%
Approx. 90%
>90%

Test specificity
(likelihood test will correctly ID those NOT infected)

Good, but must distinguish from Giardia (see below)
Excellent
Excellent

Test comments

Fecal sample must be fresh. Trophozoites move in a hap-hazard or irregular fashion - commonly misdiagnosed as giardia, although morphology is different.

In Pouch is used to detect parasite in cattle. Works well for cats but need fresh fecal sample, and a pepper-corn amount of feces. Tests available at http://www.biomed1.com/TF.htm (approximately $50 for 20-test-kit)
Test available from NC State or Vita-Tech
www.cvm.ncsu.edu

www.vita-tech.com


Additional test information:

More information, including test protocols and video differentiating Giardia and Tritrichomonas, available at: http://www.cvm.ncsu.edu/apr/gookin_jody.htm

Vaccine available?

NO

Breed susceptibility? Bengal and Abbysinian cats, although all breeds are susceptible.

Excreted in :

Feces

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral either directly or indirectly via fecal contaminated water or food.

Disinfection:

Probably killed by quaternary ammonium disinfectants.

Incubation: Average prepatent period is 8 days in dogs, 10 days in cats.  Onset of disease (if it occurs) may precede cyst shedding by 1-2 days.

Post-recovery shedding:

Shedding may still occur even after disease is treated.  It is advisable to retest animal at the end of treatment and then again several weeks later.

Clinical disease manifestation: Chronic large bowel diarrhea in otherwise healthy young cats; 75% of cases are < 1 year old. Spontaneous recovery and elimination usually occurs by 6 months to 2 years of age.

Carrier state?

Yes, similar to Giardia infections. Most infected cats are asymptomatic

Treatment:

New treatments are available. For more information visit our vet only section.


Whipworms (Trichuis vulpis)

Disease name:

Whipworms.  Most infections are asymptomatic, but heavy infections can cause mucoid diarrhea with flecks of blood.   Weight loss, dehydration, anemia and death can occur in the extreme cases.

Agent:

Trichuis vulpis

Susceptible domestic species

Dogs, rarely cats.  In a national fecal parasite survey, whipworms were reported from 14.3% of shelter dogs.  Whipworm eggs were present in fecal samples from 20% of dogs in the Southeast, 16% of dogs in the Midwest, and 15% of dogs in the Northeast.

Zoonotic?

No

Diagnostic tests:

Fecal float (identification of eggs).  Eggs are barrel- or lemon-shaped, yellow-brown, with prominent bipolar end plugs and a smooth shell

Test sensitivity (false negatives)

Moderate.  False negatives are not uncommon,.  Because of the long prepatent period, heavily-infected animals may show clinical signs before eggs are shed in the feces.  In low-level infections, eggs may be shed intermittently.

Test specificity (false positives)

Excellent.  False positives are very uncommon.  However, Trichuris eggs must be distinguished from Capillarid eggs, which  are slightly smaller and have a rough surface.

Vaccine available?

No

Excreted in :

Feces

Mode of transmission:

Fecal-oral

Disinfection

Very difficult.  Eggs are very resistant to disinfection, especially in soil.  Eggs are also resistant to drying, temperature extremes, and sunlight.   Reducing exposure of dogs to embryonated eggs in the environment is best achieved by prompt removal of feces from yards and other environments where dogs defecate.

Incubation

Pre-patent period (time from infection to shedding) = 3 months

Eggs become infective one month after they are shed.   Because the prepatent period is so long, shelter-acquired infections may not become manifest until after adoption. Dogs adopted from a known whipworm contaminated shelter should be routinely tested and/or treated up to 3 months after adoption.

Post recovery shedding/Carrier state?

Yes.  Most animals that are shedding are asymptomatic

Effective Dewormers: Fenbendazole (Panacur), Milbemycin (Interceptor or Sentinel), Febental (available as an ingredient in Drontal Plus or Vercom paste)
Because of the long period of maturation, deworming must be repeated three times at monthly intervals.
Note:  Pyrantel is NOT effective against whipworms.